Tuesday, July 7, 2015

1 Corinthians 6:9-10 by Philo Thelos

This chapter is an excerpt from the book "God Is Not a Homophobe - An Unbiased Look at Homosexuality in the Bible" By Philo Thelos

© Copyright 2004 Philo Thelos. All rights reserved.  Trafford Publishing www.trafford.com

(Please note:  This work is copyrighted, as indicated above.  I do not own the rights to this work.)

1 Corinthians 6:9-10.

This text says the, “sexually immoral… adulteresses… malakoi nor arsenokoitai…will not inherit God’s kingdom,” 1 Cor. 6:9.
From the immediate context of this statement, it is clear that Paul is attacking certain practices he had heard were occurring in the Corinthian church. He lists three: (1) a man is living with his mother in law, (5:1-5); (2) saints are suing saints in civil courts rather than in ecclesiastical courts, (6:1-8); (3) male saints are having sex with female cult prostitutes, (6:12-20). Whatever sexual sins are under consideration, they are heterosexual in nature. However, the nature of the specific sins is not primarily significant. Underlying Paul’s concern is the spiritual purity of the fellowship. The specific sins become an issue because they stain the purity of the church.
This concern indicates what is the function of the sin catalogs in the context. Notice how the three lists build upon each other: The italicized words are the new ones in each list.

1 Cor. 5:10                               1 Cor. 5:11                                       1 Cor. 6:9-10
immoral                                      immoral                                             immoral
greedy                                        greedy                                               greedy
robbers                                       robbers                                             robbers
idolaters                                      idolaters                                            idolaters
                                                   revilers                                             revilers
                                                   drunkards                                        drunkards
                                                                                                            adulterers
                                                                                                            malakoi
                                                                                                            arsenokoitai
                                                                                                            thieves


The first observation we make is that as the list grows in length the size of the club increases. Paul is building toward a rhetorical climax in which he emphasizes that such deeds exclude one from participation in God’s kingdom. This, we will simply note in passing, does not equate with eternal damnation. Being saved and going to Heaven does not equal participation in God’s kingdom. The latter has to do with exercising the power, anointing and authority that enables one to be fully productive in God’s kingdom. One may be saved and go to Heaven yet fail to experience the fullness of the earth-bound side of the reign of God. But that is a topic we cannot discuss in fullness here. It must suffice here to say that to “inherit the kingdom of God” has nothing essential to do with being saved or lost. It has to do with participating in the privileges and blessings of God's rule. Just as one might live in the USA, yet live as an outcast, homeless, poor, etc. so one may live in God's kingdom though never benefit from all that is possible therein. Paul's point then is that Christians can live in such fashion as to become disqualified for true “kingdom living. ”

The second observation is also clear: Paul is not concerned especially about any one item in his lists. There is no indication that he desired to emphasize either malakoi or arsenokoitai in his third list. If any of the sins were of special importance it would probably be the four that appear in all three lists. But this is not provable. And the conclusions might be appropriate that because malakoi and arsenokoitai appear in only one list, that they are not considered as significant as the rest. This too is not provable, but it should be considered. Paul is aware that he is writing to former pagans. It is likely that he is therefore listing sins that are especially associated with pagan life. Thus it is important to observe that he includes “idolaters” in all three lists and that malakoi and arsenokoitai were especially known in that culture as expressions of idol worship.
Interestingly, Paul’s lists take the same form as traditional lists already existing in Hellenistic Judaism. Paul’s third list, which is his full compilation, is bracketed by the phrase “kingdom of God” in a way that is common in Hellenistic literature, suggesting that Paul is borrowing from Hellenistic Jewish tradition for rhetorical
purposes.

Sunday, July 5, 2015

The New Testament and Homosexuality.

 This is a brief excerpt from the book "God Is Not A Homophobe - An Unbiased Look at Homosexuality in the Bible", by Philo Thelos.

While I do not agree with everything this author, a Christian minister, has written, I believe that the serious Bible student will review and contemplate his writings, not from a preconceived perspective, but from that of an open mind, considering that perhaps you don't know everything on the subject.  Please understand that just because I posted this here does NOT automatically mean that I endorse the ideas presented.  It means I think they are worthy of careful consideration by thoughtful Christians. 

My intent is not to upset anyone, but rather provide food for thought.  I felt the timing was appropriate, given the Supreme Court decision regarding gay marriage. Perhaps it can contribute to a mature discussion.  If you haven't carefully read and pondered this excerpt, then may I ask that you be careful about commenting here?  All I ask is for civil dialogue.

I pose one simple question to you:  Is is possible that what you have learned and have been taught regarding this issue may not be comprehensive nor completely accurate? (Remember: Just because a teaching is popular, or long-standing, does not automatically mean that it is accurate or true.)

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

 Excerpt from the Forward:

"Now the church is the chief voice suppressing the rights of homosexuals to lead a quiet and peaceful life, with all the benefits that come automatically to heterosexually inclined people.

"Without question the church believe she is right. Church leaders will preach from the Bible as long as anyone will listen, that “homosexuality is  abominable to God, and will lead you straight to Hell.” They are absolutely convinced they are right. They have their verses memorized and their arguments well honed. But:

     So did those who led the Inquisitions and Crusades.
     So did those who tried to silence the Reformers.
     So did those who demanded the murder of “witches” in Salem.
     So did those who argued for slavery.
     So did those who worked hand in hand with segregationists.
     So did those who betrayed Jews to Gestapo murderers.
     So do those who demand, “women keep silent in the church.”

"In light of the church’s penchant for taking the wrong position on social issues, we think it is not out of order to suggest that the church’s present position relative to homosexuality is one that will eventually require “repentance,” just as in these other cases." - Philo Thelos

The New Testament and Homosexuality.

Since the foregoing OT evidence does not, in our estimation, provide anything definitive on the subject of consensual adult homosexuality, we turn to the NT.
As a beginning point, let us state the fact that in the NT there is neither explicit command nor outright prohibition against homosexuality. This, in and of itself, is not determinative. But it is of consequence if we should find that there are no NT passages that unambiguously categorize homosexuality as sin. We have shown that the OT simply does not address homosexuality as such. Its references to homosexual acts are all related either specifically to violent rape and exploitation, or contextually to idol worship. Since none of those
qualifiers apply to adult consensual homosexual orientation then they are not determinative in prohibiting it. Just to keep our thinking straight, we repeat this comparison: there are many references to heterosexual acts that relate either specifically to violent rape and exploitation, or contextually to idol worship. Since none of those qualifiers apply to adult consensual heterosexual orientation then they are not determinative in  prohibiting it. So our position seems clear enough: We do not find direct prohibition of consensual homosexual orientation in the OT. If we fail also to find direct prohibition of homosexuality in the NT, then our conclusion is obvious and necessary: i.e. The Bible does not condemn homosexuality as a consensual adult sexual orientation. And if neither OT nor NT prohibits such, then it is allowable for those who choose it. We find three NT texts that appear to place homosexuality in prohibited status.

Romans 1:24-27.

God abandoned a segment of humanity to, “sexual impurity and degrading their bodies with one another” (NIV), to degrading passions and to “unnatural acts.” We have been trained to believe these are homosexual acts. Once that thought is put into our minds it is easy to read these verses as transparent condemnations of homosexuality.

 They may indeed be just that. But the necessity for honest exegesis compels us to prove the proposition rather than just taking it for granted from a superficial reading. Again our task is very simple.

We must discover what the words of our text actually mean. This discovery is made by 1) Correctly defining the words; and 2) Correctly interpreting the words in their context.

Firstly, there is no word in this text that means “homosexual.”

And there is nothing in the words “lust,” “impurity,” or “dishonor”that has anything inherently to do with homosexuality. Thosewords are used over and over in specific reference to heterosexual sin. Thus their occurrence in Rom. 1 cannot automatically refer to“homosexuality.”

The word “exchange,” (vs. 25, 26) comes from the Greek, metallasso, which means “To exchange, alter, substitute.” (The Complete Biblical Library, Greek-English Dictionary, (word # 3207). Continuing in its explanation of this word, the author says,
 
“…The root verb allasso is used several times to denote a fundamental or elemental change, as in 1 Cor. 15:51, where the thorough change in the body of the believer at Christ’s coming is discussed. In Heb. 1:12, allasso is used to describe the fundamental change to be made in the heavens at the destruction of the world.

Metallasso, in contrast to allasso, is an intensive compound meaning “to exchange” one thing for another.

Rom. 1:25 notes the “exchange” of the truth of God for a lie. In Rom. 1:26 women “exchange” natural sexual relationships for that which is not according to nature…”

Kittel’s Theological Dictionary Of The New Testament, defines metallasso this way: “To change,” “to exchange.” In Rom. 1:25, God’s truth, i.e. His self-revelation, (1:18ff.), is “changed” into a lie,
i.e. the idolatry that sets other things in place of God. This leads in Rom. 1:26 to the “exchanging” of natural relations for unnatural; this sexual perversion is the consequence of the religious perversion.”

The Greek word translated “degrading” in Rom. 1:26, is atimias.

It’s Biblical usage is discussed as follows in The Complete Biblical Library, Greek-English Dictionary, (word # 813).

“…The principal terms (in the Septuagint, D.C.) translated by atimia, include qalon, “shame, dishonor…”

“…Atimia appears only in Paul’s writings. In his corpus, it is restricted to Rom. 1:26; 9:21, 1 Cor. 11:14; 15:43; 2 Cor. 6:8; 11:21; 2 Tim. 2:20. Atimia ranges in definition from simple “embarrassment,” (1 Cor. 11:14, cf. 2 Cor. 6:8; 11:21), to an “ordinary” or “base position,” (of vessels that are “ignoble,”
RSV, 2 Tim. 2:20); cf. Rom. 39:21.

“Sinful” men “disgrace” (atimazo) their bodies, (Rom. 1:24), by succumbing to “disgraceful” (atimia) passions, (Rom. 1:26). Here the idea exceeds mere social embarrassment and moves to “shameful” behavior that is totally unacceptable to God.”

The Analytical Lexicon to the Greek New Testament, defines atimia and its relatives this way:

“Atimadzo: to dishonor, to slight, to treat with indignity, to abuse, debase.”

“Atimao: to dishonor, outrage, treat shamefully.”

“Atimia: dishonor, infamy, shame, meanness, vileness, a dishonorable use, slightingly, disparagingly.”

“Atimos: unhonored, without honor, despised.”

Discussing the word “natural,” in Rom. 1:26, (Gr. phusiken), these comments come from The Complete Biblical Library, Greek-English Dictionary, (word # 5282).

“Phusikos is the adjectival form of the noun phusis…”nature” Phusis had to do with the constitution of something – what a thing really is. Phusikos refers to that which is natural – inherent to an object…

Phusikos appears three times in the New Testament. In 2 Pet. 2:12 the Apostle described apostate men as “unreasoning animals,” born as “natural” (phusika) creatures. From this it appears that the behavior of animals is phusikos behavior – they behave in a “natural” way. Men are to have mental and spiritual
faculties that differentiate them from the unreasoning beasts.

In Rom. 1:26, 27 Paul used phusikos in the context of sexual relations. It is unnatural – contrary to the basic inborn nature of man – for men and women to engage in homosexual practices.

It is important to remember though, that to Paul what is “natural” is that “which is in accordance with the intentions of the Creator,” not merely the product of chance evolutionary factors. Thus the view that understands homosexuality as the product of prebirth hormonal influences is clearly contrary to Scripture…Heterosexuality is “natural” – an inborn quality generated by the Creator.”

Notes on Romans 1

These are my thoughts on the book of Romans.  I use the Concordant version (literal) found here:
http://concordant.org/version/CLNT_Intro.htm

I also
use the Greek Interlinear, found here:


http://scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/Greek_Index.htm

Finally, I use Strong's Concordance with Hebrew and Greek Lexicon, found here:

http://www.eliyah.com/lexicon.html


BPM Preface notes:
Paul was a Jew, of course, who was a believer in Messiah Yeshua (Jesus).  He is writing in the first century, supposedly around AD 56 (give or take a year or two).  He is writing to fellow believers living in Rome.  These believers are of both Jewish and Gentile background.  It seems as if he is writing portions of his epistle predominantly to Jewish believers, some of whom it seems may have been “having an issue” with promoting their “Jewishness” among their fellow brethren (both Jewish and gentile), and thus Paul is not only writing to correct their theology, but also to give them input as to how they should be living from day to day with the Roman persecution that he knows (via the Holy Spirit) is approaching them.  There may also be reference to the AD 70 judgment that is (was) also (soon) approaching Jerusalem.
It seems doubtful (on its surface) that these Roman Christians would have had any of Paul’s other letters that he wrote to other Christians living elsewhere.  While I am not a Jewish historian, it seems possible that some of the Jewish Christians residing there may have had access to Old Testament scriptures (if there were any synagogues in Rome at the time – I do not know).  At the very least, they would have been familiar with portions of the Old Testament narrative, as well as the elements of Old Covenant “law”.
One of the issues that I see is that if Paul is referring to the AD 70 judgment of OC Israel in Jerusalem, what direct effect would it have had on Christians (Jewish or otherwise) living 1000 miles away in Rome?  However, Nero’s persecution of the Christians in Rome was also on the horizon, and so perhaps there are some references to that in the letter.
Another issue that I see is Paul’s recurring contrast of “flesh” vs. “Spirit”(i.e., Old vs. New).  I feel he is contrasting systems: the “old system” of sin and death (or "The Sin" and "The Death") vs. the “new system” of Spirit and Life.  This would be the Old Covenant vs. the New Covenant.

My notes below are italicized in maroon, and sometimes referenced to words used in the verse itself, which are underlined and highlighted in maroon as well.  I could not easily figure out how to do footnotes or comments here.

Context is important! :)
 
Chapter 1

1 Paul, a slave of Christ Jesus, a called apostle, severed for the evangel of God

Christ, The Jewish Messiah, The Anointed One

2 (which He promises before through His prophets in the holy scriptures ), 
Reference :  Old Covenant Israel
 

3 concerning His Son (Who comes of the seed of David according to the flesh, 
Reference :  Old Covenant Israel

4 Who is designated Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection of the dead),
5 Jesus Christ, our Lord, through Whom we obtained grace and apostleship for faith-obedience among all the nations, for His name's sake,
6 among whom are you also, the called of Jesus Christ:
7 to all who are in Rome, beloved by God, called saints: Grace to you and peace from God, our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.
8 First, indeed, I am thanking my God through Jesus Christ concerning all of you, that your faith is being announced in the whole world
.

G2889 "world": kosmos “orderly arrangement” or “system”.
Taken together with the Hebrew context, it seems that Paul may be referencing the Old Covenant “system”, along with its covenant people (the Jews), NOT every person living on planet Earth at that time.
Here is a note I found on the internet:

“John 3:16 For YAHUWAH Alahym so loved the righteous (orderly people). Hebrew: tsavah. Greek: kosmos. Isaiah 38:1 that He gave His only begotten Son that whoever believes in him will not perish but have everlasting life.


“Note that all Christian translations have corrupted the blessed words “the righteous (orderly people. Hebrew: tsavah or Greek: kosmos to instead read ‘the world’. Strongs #2889 Greek concordance confirms that the Greek word “kosmos” means “orderly arrangement”."
Link:  http://greekandhebrew.wordpress.com/2010/06/13/john-316-21-grammatical-analysis/ (scroll all the way down to the bottom of the article for
the comment posted by "malakh1960update" for the complete comment. )

9 For God is my Witness, to Whom I am offering divine service in my spirit in the evangel of His Son, how unintermittingly I am making mention of you always in my prayers
10 beseeching, if somehow, sometime, at length I shall be prospered, in the will of God, to come to you.
11 For I am longing to see you, that I may be sharing some spiritual grace with you, for you to be established:
12 yet this is to be consoled together among you through one another's faith, both yours and mine.
13 Now I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, that often I purposed to come to you (and was prevented hitherto) that I should be having some fruit among you also, according as among the rest of the nations.
14 To both Greeks and barbarians
, to both wise and foolish, a debtor am I.

He is bringing the evangel to the Greeks and barbarians also, who are in Rome. in addition to the saints who are in Rome to whom he addressed the letter (v. 7).  Those saints  are the  “you” of  v. 13, 12, 11, 10, 9, 8 (“all of you”), 7 (“all [the saints] who  are in Rome”), 6 (those in v. 5 among who “obtained grace and apostleship” through Jesus Christ).

15 Thus this eagerness of mine to bring the evangel to you also, who are in Rome.
16 For not ashamed am I of the evangel, for it is God's power for salvation
to everyone who is believing -- to the Jew first, and to the Greek as well.


Salvation G4991: deliver (from what?)
ALL who believe , Jew FIRST, then Gentile


17 For in it God's righteousness is being revealed, out of faith for faith,

Out of belief into belief.  Out of OC belief into NC belief?

according as it is written: "Now the just one by faith shall be living." 
This is a reference to Habakkuk: 
Hab. 2:4: “Behold, it is made presumptuous:
his soul is not upright  in him. 
Yet the just one
 by his faith shall live.”

What writings are these, and who would have known them?

Answer:  OT writings, and it would have been known and relevant to Old Covenant Jews (and those of them who had converted to New Covenant Christianity and were reading this letter that Paul had written to them). Certainly, "gentiles" would not know about these writings nor care one whit about them.
 
18 For God's indignation is being revealed from heaven on all the irreverence and injustice of men who are retaining the truth in injustice,

Who are these men who are retaining the truth? 
What “truth” are they retaining in injustice? How are they doing so?
How was God's indignation in the process of "being revealed from heaven" back then when Paul wrote the epistle?  (Note:  Not a "mello" verse, but certainly a present tense verse).

19 because that which is known of God is apparent among them
, for God manifests it to them.


Them:  The men who are retaining the truth in injustice of  v. 18 (whoever “they” are).  Could it possibly be the (then) leaders of Old Covenant Israel, and perhaps all those who persisted in that system as well?


20 For His invisible attributes are descried
 “beheld fully”

from the creation of the world,

creation of the world = “Fabrication of the system” (Which "system"?  How about the Old Covenant "system"?  See comments on "world/system" on Verse 8 above.)
being apprehended by His achievements, besides His imperceptible power and divinity, for them to be defenseless,
21 because, knowing God
, not as God do they glorify or thank Him, but vain were they made in their reasonings, and darkened is their unintelligent heart.

What men “knew God”?  Gentiles?  Or Jews?  Certainly Christians were not "made vain" in their reasonings, for in Chapter 12, Paul exhorts them to be of "renewed mind" and to thus "know God's will".  It seems to me this is referring to OC Jews who rejected Messiah Yahshua.

22 Alleging themselves to be wise, they are made stupid,
23 and they change the glory of the incorruptible God into the likeness of an image of a corruptible human being and flying creatures and quadrupeds and reptiles.
Verse 23 is describing idolatry.  Was not Old Covenant Israel committing idolatry by rejecting Jesus in favor of their religious"system"?  How could someone outside of OC Israel change the glory of God into anything when they didn't know God to begin with and therefore, could not know, or point to, or be involved in any way with " the glory of God"?  Was not the OC system designed to reveal the glory of God?
 

24 Wherefore God gives them over
, 

Because of their idolatry, God gives them over (again: who is "them" in the text?)


in the lusts of their hearts, to the uncleanness
moral impurity

of dishonoring
G818: maltreat: --despise, dishonour, suffer shame


their bodies among themselves,
25 those who alter the truth of God
 

Again, who are the people who had the “truth of God”?  Would this not have been “Israel"? What was the “truth of God”? Were they not the only ones to alter it, since they were the only ones that had it?

into the lie, and are venerated, and offer divine service to the creature rather than the Creator, Who is blessed for the eons! Amen!

Creature: 2937. ktisis ktis'-is from 2936; original formation (properly, the act; by implication, the thing, literally or figuratively):--building, creation, creature, ordinance.

v. 22-24 obviously point to idolatry; is it possible that Paul/Holy Spirit is including  the Old Covenant system within this description of “the creature”?   Would those who insisted upon worshiping the Old Covenant “system” while vehemently rejecting Messiah Yeshua be aptly described by Paul here (not necessarily exclusively)?

Did OC Israel not offer divine service to the OC cultic system (i.e., "world"), the "creature", forsaking Yahweh and rejecting His Son for the futility of that ineffective system?

26 Therefore God gives them over to dishonorable passions
.

“For this cause [i.e., worshipping the system instead of worshipping God] God gave

them up unto vile affections."
For their females, besides, alter the natural use into that which is beside nature.
27 Likewise also the males, besides, leaving the natural use of the female, were inflamed in their craving for one another, males with males effecting indecency
, and getting back in themselves the retribution of their deception which must be.


G808: an indecency; by implication, the pudenda:--shame, that which is unseemly.


For verses 24-27, please refer to this in-depth analysis by the author Philo Thelos (link follows).  Note that he is not a preterist, so he does not see this passage in reference to Old Covenant Israel that was about to be judged in AD 70.  Nonetheless, I think his analysis bears serious consideration with regards to addressing the topics addressed by Paul in these verses.

Link to excerpt from "The New Testament and Homosexuality"


 28 And according as they do not test God, to have Him in recognition, God gives them over to a disqualified mind, to do that which is not befitting,
 
Because they are ignoring God, He gives them over to do these things, the dishonorable passions of v.24-27.

29 filled with all injustice,
G4202: idolatry, prostitution

wickedness, evil,  
G4189: malice

greed, distended with envy, murder, strife, guile, depravity, whisperers,
30 vilifiers, detesters of God, outragers, proud, ostentatious, inventors of evil things, stubborn to parents,
31 unintelligent, perfidious
,

G802: “covenant-breakers” (What covenant, and who broke that covenant? Surely not "gentiles"!  Who was the covenant with - Yahweh?)

without natural affection, implacable, unmerciful:

God gives them over to this disqualified mind (v. 28), resulting in all of these sinful behaviors listed. 

 
32 those who, recognizing the just statute of God, that those committing such things

The things listed in v. 26-31.  Note that these things are NOT limited to (supposedly) homosexual behavior.  


are deserving of death, not only are doing them, but are endorsing, also, those who are committing them. 

Being envious, or proud, or causing strife, deserves death. 

How about that?  Do we know any present-day Christians who are deserving of death because they are envious, or proud, or cause strife? 


To be continued...